Ultimate Guide to Prepare PRINCE2-Agile-Foundation with Accurate PDF Questions [Aug 04, 2026]
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NEW QUESTION # 19
Which workshop is used to assess the project's status and address any challenges?
- A. Team retrospective workshop
- B. Progress review workshop
- C. Project retrospective workshop
- D. Team planning workshop
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Progress Review Workshop is the key forum to assess the current status of the project and address challenges or issues affecting progress. It typically involves reviewing the current stage or release against plan, assessing risks, issues, and dependencies, and agreeing on corrective actions or decisions to keep the project on track.
While retrospectives (B and C) focus on reflecting and improving team practices, and team planning (A) looks ahead to upcoming work, progress reviews are focused on monitoring, control, and decision-making at the project or stage level.
This workshop aligns with PRINCE2's principle of manage by exception, enabling timely interventions without unnecessary escalation.
Reference: PRINCE2 Agile Foundation Version 2, Section 6.6 "Progress Review," and PRINCE2 Agile Study Guide, Chapter 7.
NEW QUESTION # 20
In which workshop does planning for the next stage occur?
- A. Progress review workshop
- B. Team retrospective workshop
- C. Team planning workshop
- D. Release planning workshop
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Release Planning Workshop is the forum where planning for the next stage occurs in PRINCE2 Agile. This workshop brings together the project management team and delivery teams to plan the scope, schedule, and resources for the upcoming release or stage. It helps align business priorities with delivery capacity and supports incremental and iterative delivery approaches.
The Team Planning Workshop focuses on more detailed planning at the team level within the release, the Team Retrospective Workshop is dedicated to reflecting on performance and improving processes, and the Progress Review Workshop is for reviewing progress against the plan rather than planning future work.
NEW QUESTION # 21
Which of the following defines agility?
- A. The ability to protect from uncontrolled changes
- B. The ability to embrace and respond to change
- C. The core belief that anyone is capable of learning
- D. The set of activities that define the sequence of actions
Answer: B
Explanation:
Agility is defined as the ability to embrace and respond to change quickly and effectively. It is a core principle of agile methods, enabling organizations and teams to adapt to evolving business needs, customer feedback, and external factors while delivering value continuously.
This definition contrasts with traditional change control, which often aims to prevent changes (C). Agility promotes flexibility, learning, and continuous improvement, but the belief that anyone is capable of learning (D), while important, is a cultural aspect rather than a direct definition of agility. The sequence of actions (A) relates more to processes than agility itself.
Understanding agility as the capacity to adapt ensures project approaches remain relevant in dynamic environments.
NEW QUESTION # 22
Which statement describes how the "risk" practice should be applied?
- A. An objectives and key results framework should be used
- B. A set of criteria in the Definition of Done should be identified
- C. Trading should be used to handle emerging changes
- D. Agile adoption issues should be identified by using the Agilometer
Answer: D
Explanation:
Agile Foundation guidance explains that the risk practice is concerned with identifying, assessing, and managing uncertainty in a structured and proactive way. One of the specific ways this practice is applied in Agile and PRINCE2 Agile contexts is by identifying Agile adoption risks using the Agilometer, making option A the correct answer.
The Agilometer is a diagnostic tool designed to assess how suitable Agile approaches are for a particular project or environment. It examines factors such as organizational culture, stakeholder engagement, governance requirements, team capability, and delivery constraints. By highlighting areas of risk related to Agile adoption, the Agilometer enables teams and leaders to make informed decisions about how Agile should be tailored and what mitigations are needed. This aligns directly with the purpose of the risk practice, which is to reduce uncertainty and protect value.
Option B, trading to handle emerging changes, relates to scope and prioritization flexibility rather than risk management itself. While trading can reduce risk indirectly by controlling scope, it is not a primary application of the risk practice. Option C, using an objectives and key results framework, focuses on goal-setting and performance measurement, not risk identification or assessment. Option D, identifying criteria in the Definition of Done, supports quality management rather than risk management.
Agile Foundation documents emphasize that Agile does not eliminate risk; instead, it makes risk visible and manageable through early feedback, incremental delivery, and structured assessment. The risk practice ensures that uncertainties are understood and addressed continuously throughout the lifecycle. By using tools such as the Agilometer, organizations can anticipate challenges in Agile adoption and take proactive steps to manage them. This supports effective governance while preserving Agile's flexibility, ensuring that Agile is applied in a way that is both realistic and sustainable.
NEW QUESTION # 23
What is the purpose of the "agile enablement" workshop?
- A. To identify, assess, and plan for risks associated with team delivery
- B. To identify, assess, and plan for risks associated with Agile adoption
- C. To identify, assess, and plan for risks associated with project delivery
- D. To identify, assess, and plan for risks associated with enterprise agility
Answer: B
Explanation:
Agile Foundation guidance explains that the purpose of the agile enablement workshop is to identify, assess, and plan for risks associated with Agile adoption, making option C the correct answer. This workshop is a structured activity designed to help organizations and project teams understand how well Agile ways of working fit their specific context and what challenges may arise when adopting Agile approaches.
The agile enablement workshop focuses on readiness rather than delivery execution. It examines factors such as organizational culture, governance expectations, stakeholder engagement, team capability, leadership support, and external constraints. By discussing these areas openly, participants can identify potential barriers to Agile adoption, assess their impact, and agree on actions to reduce or manage those risks. This proactive approach supports informed decision-making and avoids unrealistic expectations about Agile.
Option A, risks associated with project delivery, relates more to traditional project risk management practices. Option B, team delivery risks, focuses narrowly on team-level execution issues rather than adoption. Option D, enterprise agility risks, applies at a broader organizational transformation level and goes beyond the typical scope of an agile enablement workshop, which is usually project- or initiative-focused.
Agile Foundation documents emphasize that Agile adoption is not risk-free and should be approached thoughtfully. The agile enablement workshop helps ensure that Agile is tailored appropriately rather than applied mechanically. It supports alignment between Agile teams and governance structures, clarifies where flexibility is possible, and highlights where controls are required. By identifying and planning for adoption risks early, organizations increase the likelihood of successful Agile implementation while preserving the core values of adaptability, collaboration, and value-driven delivery.
NEW QUESTION # 24
Which is an advantage of using the PRINCE2 Agile behavior 'collaboration'?
- A. It allows people to provide cover for one another
- B. It uses learning to help improve products
- C. It ensures that there are no surprises
- D. It uses experimentation to expand requirements
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 25
Which TWO project board responsibilities are specifically assigned to the senior user?
1) Demonstrating the achievement of benefits.
2) Specifying the needs of those impacted by the outputs.
3) Balancing business, user and supplier demands.
4) Ensuring that the project delivers value for money.
- A. 1 and 4
- B. 3 and 4
- C. 2 and 3
- D. 1 and 2
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 26
Which is a responsibility of the product owner?
- A. Prepare and maintain the product backlog
- B. Ensure project-level risks are identified and assessed
- C. Monitor progress of the stage
- D. Prepare and maintain the project backlog
Answer: A
Explanation:
The product owner is responsible for preparing and maintaining the product backlog, ensuring it accurately reflects user requirements, priorities, and acceptance criteria. This role acts as the voice of the customer, maximizing product value by managing backlog items, ordering them to reflect business priorities, and clarifying requirements for development teams.
Monitoring stage progress (A) and managing project-level risks (B) are typically roles of the project manager or risk owner within PRINCE2 governance. The project backlog (C) contains higher-level requirements for the entire project and is not the product owner's direct responsibility.
The product owner bridges business and delivery, ensuring the team works on the most valuable features while maintaining clarity and quality of backlog items.
NEW QUESTION # 27
Which is a responsibility of the product owner?
- A. Prepare and maintain the product backlog
- B. Ensure project-level risks are identified and assessed
- C. Monitor progress of the stage
- D. Prepare and maintain the project backlog
Answer: A
Explanation:
The product owner is responsible for preparing and maintaining the product backlog, ensuring it accurately reflects user requirements, priorities, and acceptance criteria. This role acts as the voice of the customer, maximizing product value by managing backlog items, ordering them to reflect business priorities, and clarifying requirements for development teams.
Monitoring stage progress (A) and managing project-level risks (B) are typically roles of the project manager or risk owner within PRINCE2 governance. The project backlog (C) contains higher-level requirements for the entire project and is not the product owner's direct responsibility.
The product owner bridges business and delivery, ensuring the team works on the most valuable features while maintaining clarity and quality of backlog items.
Reference: PRINCE2 Agile Foundation Version 2, Section 5.2 "Roles and Responsibilities," and PRINCE2 Agile Study Guide, Chapter 5.
NEW QUESTION # 28
Which is a benefit of the Lean Startup approach to releasing a product?
- A. It provide a technique to reduce the testing of a product before release
- B. It provides quick feedback that can be responded to at the earliest opportunity
- C. It reduces the number of people needed to manage a release of a product
- D. It enables the release plans to be synchronized with the PRINCE2 plans
Answer: D
Explanation:
Reference: https://publications.axelos.com/prince2agile2016/content.aspx?page=pra_170&showNav=true&expandNav=true
NEW QUESTION # 29
Which workshop reflects on lessons learned?
- A. Project kickoff workshop
- B. Project closure workshop
- C. Agile enablement workshop
- D. Team planning workshop
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Project Closure Workshop is the formal forum used to reflect on lessons learned during the project lifecycle. It is held towards the end of the project and provides an opportunity for the project team, stakeholders, and sponsors to review successes, challenges, and areas for improvement.
Capturing lessons learned supports organizational learning, helps avoid repeating mistakes, and improves future projects and agile adoption. This reflective practice aligns with PRINCE2's focus on continuous improvement and governance requirements.
Other workshops such as team planning (A) focus on upcoming work, agile enablement (B) on agile adoption, and project kickoff (C) on project initiation, none of which prioritize lessons learned reflection.
The project closure workshop is a vital practice to ensure knowledge retention and maturity in both traditional and agile project environments.
Reference: PRINCE2 Agile Foundation Version 2, Section 9.2 "Closing a Project," and PRINCE2 Agile Study Guide, Chapter 9.
NEW QUESTION # 30
Which role is responsible for facilitating the Agilometer assessment?
- A. Team manager
- B. Project board
- C. Customer subject matter expert
- D. Project manager
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 31
In which step of the approach to issue management are options to resolve an issue evaluated?
- A. Decide
- B. Capture
- C. Implement
- D. Recommend
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Recommend step in issue management involves analyzing the issue and evaluating possible options to resolve it. At this stage, the project team or responsible individuals identify potential solutions, weigh their pros and cons, and recommend the best course of action to decision-makers.
Capture is the initial identification and recording of the issue, Decide involves making the final decision on the recommended solution, and Implement is the execution of the chosen resolution. Evaluating options thoroughly during the Recommend phase helps ensure informed decision-making and effective issue resolution.
This structured approach aligns with PRINCE2's focus on proactive issue management, maintaining control and reducing risk impacts.
NEW QUESTION # 32
Which Agile approach is an iterative and timeboxed approach to product delivery?
- A. Scrum
- B. Kanban
- C. Lean
- D. Agilometer
Answer: A
Explanation:
Agile Foundation guidance clearly identifies Scrum as an iterative and timeboxed approach to product delivery, making option A the correct answer. Scrum is built around fixed-length iterations called sprints, which are typically one to four weeks long. These timeboxes create a regular cadence for planning, development, review, and improvement, enabling teams to deliver usable increments of a product frequently and predictably.
Scrum emphasizes iterative delivery by breaking complex work into smaller, manageable pieces that can be completed within a sprint. Each sprint begins with planning, where the team selects work from the product backlog, and ends with a review and retrospective. This structure supports frequent inspection of both the product and the team's way of working, allowing for continuous adaptation based on feedback and learning. Agile Foundation documents highlight that timeboxing is a key mechanism in Scrum, helping teams focus, limit work in progress, and reduce risk.
Option B, Kanban, is not timeboxed. Kanban focuses on continuous flow, visualizing work, and limiting work in progress rather than delivering in fixed iterations. Option C, the Agilometer, is an assessment tool used to evaluate suitability and risks of Agile adoption, not a delivery approach. Option D, Lean, is a broader philosophy focused on eliminating waste and optimizing value flow; while it can influence Agile delivery, it is not inherently iterative and timeboxed in the way Scrum is.
Agile Foundation materials stress that Scrum's iterative and timeboxed nature supports transparency, predictability, and early value delivery. By delivering small increments regularly, teams can gather feedback early, reduce uncertainty, and adapt priorities as needs change. This makes Scrum particularly effective in environments where requirements evolve and learning is essential.
NEW QUESTION # 33
Which of the following is used to support the "progress" practice?
- A. Trading/swapping
- B. Team skills matrix
- C. Burn charts
- D. Agilometer
Answer: C
Explanation:
In Agile Foundation guidance, the progress practice focuses on understanding, monitoring, and communicating how work is advancing toward agreed objectives and outcomes. Burn charts are a key tool used to support this practice, making option B the correct answer. Burn charts provide a simple, visual representation of progress over time, enabling teams and stakeholders to see how much work has been completed and how much remains.
Burn charts, including burn-down and burn-up charts, are widely used in Agile environments to support transparency and informed decision-making. A burn-down chart shows the remaining work decreasing over time, while a burn-up chart displays completed work against the total scope. Both formats help teams assess whether they are on track to meet their goals within a given timebox or delivery stage. Agile Foundation materials emphasize that progress should be measured based on delivered value and completed work, not on effort spent or activities performed.
Option A, the Agilometer, is used to assess the suitability and risks of Agile adoption rather than tracking delivery progress. Option C, trading or swapping, relates to scope flexibility and prioritization, allowing teams to exchange lower-value work for higher-value items while staying within constraints. While useful, it does not directly measure or visualize progress. Option D, the team skills matrix, supports capability development and resource planning, not progress tracking.
Agile Foundation documents highlight that effective progress tracking builds trust and supports governance without excessive reporting. Burn charts enable frequent inspection of progress, early identification of issues, and timely adaptation when trends indicate potential problems. They also support the principle of manage by exception by providing clear evidence when tolerances may be exceeded. By offering a shared, easily understood view of progress, burn charts strengthen transparency, collaboration, and confidence in Agile delivery, making them an essential tool for the progress practice.
NEW QUESTION # 34
What is a responsibility of the team coach?
- A. To liaise with the project manager
- B. To liaise with the agile coach
- C. To liaise with the chief product owner
- D. To liaise with project assurance
Answer: B
Explanation:
In Agile Foundation guidance, the team coach plays a key role in supporting one or more Agile teams in adopting and improving Agile ways of working. A core responsibility of the team coach is to liaise with the agile coach, making option A the correct answer. This relationship ensures alignment between team-level coaching and organization-wide Agile adoption.
The team coach focuses primarily on the day-to-day effectiveness of the team. This includes helping the team understand Agile principles, improve collaboration, enhance communication, and continuously improve their ways of working. The agile coach, on the other hand, typically operates at a broader level, supporting multiple teams, leaders, and the organization as a whole in embedding Agile culture and practices. By liaising with the agile coach, the team coach ensures that insights, challenges, and progress at the team level are shared and addressed consistently across the organization.
Option B, liaising with the project manager, is not a primary responsibility of the team coach in Agile foundations. While coordination may occur, Agile reduces dependency on traditional command-and-control roles. Option C, liaising with the chief product owner, is also not central to the team coach role, as product ownership focuses on value and prioritization rather than team dynamics and Agile maturity. Option D, liaising with project assurance, aligns more with governance and compliance functions rather than coaching responsibilities.
Agile Foundation documents emphasize that effective coaching relies on collaboration between coaching roles. The team coach provides detailed, practical feedback from the team, while the agile coach offers strategic direction, consistency, and organizational support. This collaboration strengthens Agile adoption, helps remove systemic impediments, and ensures that teams are supported both locally and at scale. By liaising with the agile coach, the team coach helps create a coherent, sustainable Agile environment focused on continuous improvement and value delivery.
NEW QUESTION # 35
Why are team working agreement produced?
- A. To make the team rules visible to the project manager for monitoring purposes
- B. To evolve the effectiveness and behaviors of the self-organizing team by agreeing values
- C. To create structure so that the team manager can assess individual performance
- D. To ensure that the delivery team members comply with company policy
Answer: B
Explanation:
Reference https://publications.axelos.com/prince2agile2016/content.aspx?
page=pra_126&showNav=true&expandNav=true
NEW QUESTION # 36
What is the purpose of the 'progress' practice?
- A. To provide a forecast for the project's viability
- B. To establish accountability for the project
- C. To identify the user needs and requirements
- D. To identify and assess opportunities and threats
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Progress practice in PRINCE2 Agile is focused on providing a forecast of the project's viability by monitoring actual progress against plans and predicting future performance. It ensures that decisions can be made based on current status and trends, enabling timely interventions if necessary.
This practice involves collecting progress data, reviewing milestones, updating forecasts, and communicating status to stakeholders. Forecasting viability includes assessing whether the project remains aligned with business justification and expected benefits.
While opportunities and threats are part of risk management (B), user needs belong to requirements management (C), and accountability is a broader governance concern (D), progress specifically deals with tracking and forecasting delivery status.
The practice combines traditional PRINCE2 stage controls with agile iterative reviews, providing an integrated view of progress.
NEW QUESTION # 37
When tracking progress, which term describes using agile techniques at the delivery level, and traditional techniques at the direction and management levels?
- A. Effective
- B. Typical
- C. Preferable
Answer: A
Explanation:
Reference: https://publications.axelos.com/prince2agile2016/content.aspx?
showNav=true&expandNav=true&page=PRA_97
NEW QUESTION # 38
Which artifact is used to describe the project's major products in the form of epic user stories?
- A. Product backlog
- B. Release map
- C. Project backlog
- D. Project dashboard
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Project Backlog is the artifact used to describe the project's major products in the form of epic user stories. Epic stories are large, high-level user stories that capture significant features or product components that may later be decomposed into smaller, more detailed user stories in the product backlog.
The Project Backlog provides a strategic view of what the project intends to deliver and supports planning at the project level, including releases and stages. It bridges the gap between business requirements and team- level delivery.
The Product Backlog (C) contains detailed user stories ready for development but is typically more granular.
The Release Map (B) plans releases and iterations but does not list epic stories. The Project Dashboard (A) is a reporting tool, not a repository of requirements.
The use of epic user stories in the project backlog aligns with agile practices for managing scope and enables incremental delivery aligned with business priorities.
Reference: PRINCE2 Agile Foundation Version 2, Section 5.4 "Backlogs and Epics," and PRINCE2 Agile Study Guide, Chapter 5.
NEW QUESTION # 39
Which principle establishes governance by delegating responsibilities and setting tolerances?
- A. Focus on products
- B. Tailor to suit the project
- C. Ensure continued business justification
- D. Manage by exception
Answer: D
Explanation:
The principle that establishes governance by delegating responsibilities and setting tolerances is manage by exception, making option C the correct answer. Agile Foundation guidance, aligned with PRINCE2 and PRINCE2 Agile principles, explains that effective governance does not require constant oversight or micromanagement. Instead, it relies on clearly defined roles, delegated authority, and agreed tolerances within which teams are empowered to operate.
Manage by exception works by setting measurable tolerances for key aspects such as time, cost, scope, quality, risk, and benefits. As long as work remains within these agreed limits, the team or delivery level can proceed independently without escalation. This creates clarity around accountability while allowing teams the autonomy needed to work efficiently and respond to change-an essential aspect of Agile delivery. Escalation only occurs when forecasts indicate that tolerances will be exceeded, ensuring that senior management attention is focused where it adds the most value.
Option A, ensure continued business justification, focuses on confirming that the project remains viable and worthwhile, but it does not define how governance is enacted day to day. Option B, tailor to suit the project, emphasizes adapting methods and controls to the project context rather than establishing governance through delegation. Option D, focus on products, ensures clarity around outputs and acceptance criteria but does not address governance or escalation mechanisms.
Agile Foundation documents highlight that manage by exception supports agility by balancing control with empowerment. Teams gain the freedom to self-manage and deliver iteratively, while leadership retains confidence that risks are controlled and objectives are protected. This principle reduces unnecessary reporting, speeds up decision-making, and supports trust between governance levels. By clearly delegating responsibilities and defining tolerances, manage by exception provides a practical and effective governance model compatible with Agile ways of working.
NEW QUESTION # 40
Which statement about the 'embrace change' target is CORRECT?
- A. It results in the late delivery of the minimum viable product
- B. It re-establishes team dynamics when a new member joins the team
- C. It trades user stories for those of a similar size
- D. It degrades the performance of the features that are delivered
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 41
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