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CompTIA CS0-002 certification exam is highly recommended for cybersecurity professionals who are looking to advance their careers. CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam certification is designed to help individuals gain the skills and knowledge they need to excel in their roles as cybersecurity analysts. In addition, this certification is recognized by many employers as a valuable credential that demonstrates an individual's commitment to the field of cybersecurity.
CompTIA CySA+ certification exam, also known as CS0-002, is a rigorous exam that covers various cybersecurity concepts and technologies. CS0-002 exam consists of 85 multiple-choice and performance-based questions that need to be completed within 165 minutes. CS0-002 exam covers various topics such as threat management, vulnerability management, incident response, and compliance and assessment.
NEW QUESTION # 173
A cyber-incident response analyst is investigating a suspected cryptocurrency miner on a company's server.
Which of the following is the FIRST step the analyst should take?
- A. Create a full disk image of the server's hard drive to look for the file containing the malware.
- B. Take a memory snapshot of the machine to capture volatile information stored in memory.
- C. Run a manual antivirus scan on the machine to look for known malicious software.
- D. Start packet capturing to look for traffic that could be indicative of command and control from the miner.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 174
A security analyst is reviewing the following log after enabling key-based authentication.
Given the above information, which of the following steps should be performed NEXT to secure the system?
- A. Disable password authentication for SSH.
- B. Disable anonymous SSH logins.
- C. Disable SSHv1.
- D. Disable remote root SSH logins.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 175
During the forensic analysis of a compromised machine, a security analyst discovers some binaries that are exhibiting abnormal behaviors. After extracting the strings, the analyst finds unexpected content. Which of the following is the next step the analyst should take?
- A. Use file integrity monitoring to validate the digital signature
- B. Run an antivirus against the binaries to check for malware.
- C. Only allow binaries on the approve list to execute.
- D. Validate the binaries' hashes from a trusted source.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Validating the binaries' hashes from a trusted source is the next step the analyst should take after discovering some binaries that are exhibiting abnormal behaviors and finding unexpected content in their strings. A hash is a fixed-length value that uniquely represents the contents of a file or message. By comparing the hashes of the binaries on the compromised machine with the hashes of the original or legitimate binaries from a trusted source, such as the software vendor or repository, the analyst can determine whether the binaries have been modified or replaced by malicious code. If the hashes do not match, it indicates that the binaries have been tampered with and may contain malware.
NEW QUESTION # 176
A security analyst is reviewing the logs from an internal chat server. The chat.log file is too large to review manually, so the analyst wants to create a shorter log file that only includes lines associated with a user demonstrating anomalous activity. Below is a snippet of the log:
Which of the following commands would work BEST to achieve the desired result?
- A. grep -i pythonfun chat.log
- B. grep -i chatter14 chat.log
- C. grep -v pythonfun chat.log
- D. grep -v javashark chat.log
- E. grep -i javashark chat.log
- F. grep -v chatter14 chat.log
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 177
A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) needs to ensure that a laptop image remains unchanged and can be verified before authorizing the deployment of the image to 4000 laptops.
Which of the following tools would be appropriate to use in this case?
- A. FIM
- B. MSBA
- C. DLP
- D. SHA1sum
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 178
A new vanant of malware is spreading on ihe company network using TCP 443 to contact its command-and-control server The domain name used for callback continues to change, and the analyst is unable to predict future domain name variance Which of the following actions should the analyst take to stop malicious communications with the LEAST disruption to service?
- A. Configure the DNS forwarders to use recursion
- B. Implement a sinkhole with a high entropy level
- C. Disable TCP/53 at the penmeter firewall
- D. Block TCP/443 at the edge router
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 179
An organization wants to move non-essential services into a cloud computing environment. The management team has a cost focus and would like to achieve a recovery time objective of 12 hours. Which of the following cloud recovery strategies would work best to attain the desired outcome?
- A. Duplicate all services in another instance and load balance between the instances.
- B. Set up a warm disaster recovery site with the same cloud provider in a different region.
- C. Establish a hot site with active replication to another region within the same cloud provider.
- D. Configure the systems with a cold site at another cloud provider that can be used for failover.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Setting up a warm disaster recovery site with the same cloud provider in a different region can help to achieve a recovery time objective (RTO) of 12 hours while keeping the costs low. A warm disaster recovery site is a partially configured site that has some of the essential hardware and software components ready to be activated in case of a disaster. A warm site can provide faster recovery than a cold site, which has no preconfigured components, but lower costs than a hot site, which has fully configured and replicated components. Using the same cloud provider can help to simplify the migration and synchronization processes, while using a different region can help to avoid regional outages or disasters .
NEW QUESTION # 180
Ransomware is identified on a company's network that affects both Windows and MAC hosts.
The command and control channel for encryption for this variant uses TCP ports from 11000 to
65000. The channel goes to good1. Iholdbadkeys.com, which resolves to IP address 72.172.16.2.
Which of the following is the MOST effective way to prevent any newly infected systems from actually encrypting the data on connected network drives while causing the least disruption to normal Internet traffic?
- A. Block all outbound traffic on TCP ports 11000 to 65000 to IP host address 172.172.16.2 at the border gateway.
- B. Block all outbound traffic to web host good1 iholdbadkeys.com at the border gateway.
- C. Block all outbound TCP connections to IP host address 172.172.16.2 at the border gateway.
- D. Block all outbound traffic on TCP ports 11000 to 65000 at the border gateway.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 181
Given a packet capture of the following scan:
Which of the following should MOST likely be inferred on the scan's output?
- A. 192.168.1.115 is hosting a web server.
- B. 192.168.1.55 is a Linux server.
- C. 192.168.1.55 is a file server.
- D. 192.168.1.55 is hosting a web server.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 182
An analyst is performing penetration testing and vulnerability assessment activities against a new vehicle automation platform.
Which of the following is MOST likely an attack vector that is being utilized as part of the testing and assessment?
- A. SoC
- B. CAN bus
- C. GPS
- D. FaaS
- E. RTOS
Answer: E
Explanation:
IoT devices also often run real-time operating systems (RTOS). These are either special purpose operating systems or variants of standard operating systems designed to process data rapidly as it arrives from sensors or other IoT components.
NEW QUESTION # 183
During the threat modeling process for a new application that a company is launching, a security analyst needs to define methods and items to take into consideralion Wtiich of the following are part of a known threat modeling method?
- A. Threat profile, infrastructure and application vulnerabilities, security strategy and plans
- B. Purpose, objective, scope, (earn management, cost, roles and responsibilities
- C. Human impact, adversary's motivation, adversary's resources, adversary's methods
- D. Spoofing tampering, repudiation, information disclosure, denial of service elevation of privilege
Answer: D
Explanation:
Spoofing, tampering, repudiation, information disclosure, denial of service, and elevation of privilege are part of a known threat modeling method called STRIDE. STRIDE is a mnemonic that stands for six categories of threats that can affect the security of a system or application. STRIDE was developed by Microsoft in 1999 and has been widely adopted as a threat modeling method by many organizations. STRIDE can help identify and prioritize potential threats based on their impact and likelihood1.
NEW QUESTION # 184
An analyst is performing penetration testing and vulnerability assessment activities against a new vehicle automation platform.
Which of the following is MOST likely an attack vector that is being utilized as part of the testing and assessment?
- A. CAN bus
- B. SoC
- C. RTOS
- D. GPS
- E. FaaS
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 185
A security analyst is reviewing the following log from an email security service.
Which of the following BEST describes the reason why the email was blocked?
- A. The To address is invalid.
- B. The IP address and the remote server name are the same.
- C. The From address is invalid.
- D. The IP address was blacklisted.
- E. The email originated from the www.spamfilter.org URL.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Reference: https://www.webopediA.com/TERM/R/RBL.html
NEW QUESTION # 186
A company's security administrator needs to automate several security processes related to testing for the existence of changes within the environment Conditionally other processes will need to be created based on input from prior processes Which of the following is the BEST method for accomplishing this task?
- A. API integration and data enrichment
- B. Workflow orchestration and scripting
- C. Continuous integration and configuration management
- D. Machine learning and process monitoring
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 187
A vulnerability scan came back with critical findings for a Microsoft SharePoint server:
Which of the following actions should be taken?
- A. Document the finding as an exception.
- B. Remove Microsoft Office from the server.
- C. Patch Microsoft Office on the server.
- D. Install a newer version of Microsoft Office on the server.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 188
An analyst has received a notification about potential malicious activity against a web server. The analyst logs in to a central log collection server and runs the following command: "cat access.log.1 | grep "union". The output shown below appears:
<68.71.54.117> - - [31/Jan/2020:10:02:31 -0400] "Get /cgi-bin/backend1.sh?id=%20union%20select%20192.168.60.50 HTTP/1.1" Which of the following attacks has occurred on the server?
- A. SQL injection
- B. Directory traversal
- C. Cross-site request forgery
- D. Cross-site scripting
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 189
A company is experiencing a malware attack within its network. A security engineer notices many of the impacted assets are connecting outbound to a number of remote destinations and exfiltrating data. The security engineer also see that deployed, up-to-date antivirus signatures are ineffective. Which of the following is the BEST approach to prevent any impact to the company from similar attacks in the future?
- A. Port security
- B. Data loss prevention
- C. IDS signatures
- D. Sinkholing
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
"Preventing data exfiltration is possible with security solutions that ensure data loss and leakage prevention.
For example, firewalls can block unauthorized access to resources and systems storing sensitive information.
On the other hand, a security information and event management system (SIEM) can secure data in motion, in use, and at rest, secure endpoints, and identify suspicious data transfers"
https://www.fortinet.com/resources/cyberglossary/data-exfiltration
NEW QUESTION # 190
A security analyst is reviewing packet captures from a system that was compromised. The system was already isolated from the network, but it did have network access for a few hours after being compromised. When viewing the capture in a packet analyzer, the analyst sees the following:
Which of the following can the analyst conclude?
- A. Malware is attempting to beacon to 128.50.100.3.
- B. Data is being exfiltrated over DNS.
- C. The system is scanning ajgidwle.com for PII.
- D. The system is running a DoS attack against ajgidwle.com.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 191
A security analyst has observed several incidents within an organization that are affecting one specific piece of hardware on the network. Further investigation reveals the equipment vendor previously released a patch.
Which of the following is the MOST appropriate threat classification for these incidents?
- A. Advanced persistent threat
- B. Zero day
- C. Unknown threat
- D. Known threat
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 192
During an incident response procedure, a security analyst acquired the needed evidence from the hard drive of a compromised machine. Which of the following actions should the analyst perform next to ensure the data integrity of the evidence?
- A. Create a chain of custody document.
- B. Generate hashes for each file from the hard drive.
- C. Determine a timeline of events using correct time synchronization.
- D. Keep the cloned hard drive in a safe place.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Generating hashes for each file from the hard drive is the next action that the analyst should perform to ensure the data integrity of the evidence. Hashing is a technique that produces a unique and fixed-length value for a given input, such as a file or a message. Hashing can help to verify the data integrity of the evidence by comparing the hash values of the original and copied files. If the hash values match, then the evidence has not been altered or corrupted. If the hash values differ, then the evidence may have been tampered with or damaged .
NEW QUESTION # 193
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To earn the CompTIA CySA+ certification, candidates must pass the CS0-002 exam, which consists of 85 multiple-choice and performance-based questions. CS0-002 exam is designed to test the candidate's ability to analyze and interpret data related to cybersecurity incidents, identify vulnerabilities and threats, and recommend appropriate mitigation strategies. CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam certification is ideal for cybersecurity analysts, security operations center (SOC) analysts, and security engineers, as well as any IT professional looking to advance their career in the cybersecurity field. With the growing demand for cybersecurity professionals, the CompTIA CySA+ certification can help individuals stand out in a competitive job market and increase their earning potential.
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